Answer :
Answer:
Follows are the solution to the given choices:
Explanation:
[tex]\to CF_0 = -10600\\\\\to CF_1 to\ CF_4 = 1750\\\\\to CF_5 = 8500\\\\\to Rate =13.75 \%\\\\[/tex]
calculating NPV:
[tex]NPV = NPV(Rate,CF_1\ to \ CF_4) + CF_0[/tex]
[tex]= NPV(13.75 \% ,1750,1750,1750,1750,8500) -10600\\[/tex]
[tex]= \$ (1,011.40)[/tex]
Calculating the IRR for the project:
[tex]IRR = IRR(CFs) \\\\[/tex]
[tex]= IRR(-10600,1750,1750,1750,1750,8500)\\\\ = 10.63 \%[/tex]
Calculating the PI for the project:
[tex]PI = \frac{\text{PV of Future CFs}}{\text{Initial Investment}}[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{NPV(13.75 \% ,1750,1750,1750,1750,8500)}{10600}[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{\$ 9,588.60}{10600}\\\\ = 0.90[/tex]
So what's the plan payback time? (if it's never given directly by the venture, enter 0 for the reply).
[tex]\to 10600 - (1750+1750+1750+1750) = 3600\\\\[/tex]
The PB occurs in [tex]Y_5 = 4 + \frac{(8500-3600)}{8500}\\\\[/tex]
[tex]= 4 + \frac{(4900)}{8500}\\\\ = 4 + \frac{(49)}{85}\\\\ = 4.58 \ yrs[/tex]
The program's payback method, (if it's never paid back by the project, enter 0 for the answer)
Because CF's PV is $9,588.60, Disc Payback won't happen. '0' is the answer.