a = 1, b = 2 is a counterexample, and with that, we conclude that the conjecture is false.
Is the conjecture true or false?
Here we have the conjecture:
"For any two integers a and b, (a - b)^2 = (a^2 - b^2)"
Notice that if we find a single pair of integers a and b such that the equality in the conjecture is false, then we have found a counterexample and that is enough to conclude that the conjecture is false.
If we define=
a = 1
b = 2
Replacing that in the equation of the conjecture we get:
(1 - 2)^2 = (1^2 - 2^2)
(-1)^2 = 1 - 4
1 = -3
This is false, then a = 1, b = 2 is a counterexample, and with that we conclude that the conjecture is false.
If you want to learn more about counterexamples:
https://brainly.com/question/1581078
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